From the ACLU. Print and keep in your glovebox.
This is something I tripped over while in a car chat room. It's from the ALCU, who I usually don't agree with, and it could really help you out in a tight spot.
It giver you your rights and how to deal with a police stop and their efforts to entrap you. I tried to attach the document but it was too big. Here's the web address to check it out.
[url]http://www.aclu.org/racialjustice/racialprofiling/15865pub20040714.html[/url]
Re : OK, Research This...
[QUOTE=Wallie]
Ergo, a "license" is not, regardless of what they tell you, [b]required[/b] for you, me, or any citizen, to operate a motor vehicle on the road. We are Traveling, not Driving.
Use of the roads is Right. A Right cannot be regulated lest it be regulated out of existence.
Again, and for the last time, I am not advising anyone to anything. You can be arrested for not having a Drivers License. Unless you know exactly how to defend yourself, you will be found guilty. You will be in trouble. I, for the time being at least, have a Driver's License, and [b]do not[/b] advise anyone to not have one.
[/QUOTE]
Lemme see if I got this straight =
You aren't *required* to have a Driver's License to drive , but if you get caught
driving with·out one , you'll get arrested for driving with·out a Driver's License
Thanks for clearing that up for us , Wallie
Code, law, taxes, licenses...
[QUOTE=Nightflyerx1]Just a couple of recent cases on income tax. Check out the video from google videos.
[url]http://video.google.com/videoplay?docid=6716929127738729234[/url]
It's what happened when asked to show the law that says you have to pay taxes. And heres another one.
[url]http://www.unknownnews.org/030812VerniceKuglin.html[/url]
If you do a search for Vernice Kuglin or Whitey Harrell you will find these cases most interesting because the core of there defense was the same , just show me the law , not the code the actual law. Seems they were both found innocent.[/QUOTE]In reference to the first link, which is a video clip of the jury foreman explaining why they found the defendant not guilty, there was nothing in the information provided proving there is no law requiring one to pay income taxes. What the information did explain, in my opinion, is that the judge was irresponsible and arrogant in relating to the jury. To simply say you have everything you need - as he did - with no further explanation ignores the question and fails to recognize the jury was struggling with trying to issue a just verdict. When a jury does not know what a law is but is told to issue a decision based on that law, and requests to see the law, it seems to me they truly do have an obligation to find in favor of the defendant.
In the second link, it’s clear that it was a criminal trial for tax evasion. The defense attorneys wisely used the fact that the defendant had requested more than once a copy of the law but never received it. Consequently, the element of intent was not present and the defendant was found not criminally responsible. However, that does not relieve the defendant of the responsibility of paying the taxes she did not pay. According to her own attorney, she will probably be civilly tried or at the very least an attempt will be made to collect the money prior to a civil trial. As the article stated, “The five-day trial did not resolve whether she must make the tax payment."I think it is safe to assume the IRS will attempt civil collection, but she is not guilty of tax evasion," said defense attorney Robert Bernhoft.”
Both cases revolve around the fact that the government, which sometimes forgets that it is of the people, by the people, and for the people - and therefore serves the people - arrogantly and irresponsibly failed to act in a way that a rational and reasoned person would act. The government failed to respond to a request for help in both issues and consequently lost in both instances, as they should have.
In previous posts, it has been inferred that there is a difference between a code and a law. Sometimes that is so and sometimes it is not. Below is a legal definition taken from [url]http://dictionary.law.com/[/url]. Now, before all the sea lawyers get on my case and insist that Black’s Law dictionary is the standard in the field of law, I am fully aware of that. However, I have no desire to go out and buy it or run to the nearest college library to obtain Black’s definitions. For the purposes of this discussion, the definitions below are sufficient to show that sometimes the word code does mean a law and sometimes it doesn’t. (Note that within the definition that laws are often frequently changed by legislative bodies, some codes that are not laws have the force of law, and don’t forget that case law can often further refine, define, or overturn a law.)
code
n. a collection of written laws gathered together, usually covering specific subject matter. Thus, a state may have a civil code, corporations code, education code, evidence code, health and safety codes, insurance code, labor code, motor vehicle code, penal code, revenue and taxation code, and so forth. Federal statutes which deal with legal matters are grouped together in codes. There are also statutes which are not codified. Despite their apparent permanence, codes are constantly being amended by legislative bodies. Some codes are administrative and have the force of law even though they were created and adopted by regulatory agencies and are not actually statutes or laws.
law
n. 1) any system of regulations to govern the conduct of the people of a community, society or nation, in response to the need for regularity, consistency and justice based upon collective human experience. Custom or conduct governed by the force of the local king were replaced by laws almost as soon as man learned to write. The earliest lawbook was written about 2100 B.C. for Ur-Nammu, king of Ur, a Middle Eastern city-state. Within three centuries Hammurabi, king of Babylonia, had enumerated laws of private conduct, business and legal precedents, of which 282 articles have survived. The term "eye for an eye" (or the equivalent value) is found there, as is drowning as punishment for adultery by a wife (while a husband could have slave concubines), and unequal treatment of the rich and the poor was codified here first. It took another thousand years before written law codes developed among the Greek city-states (particularly Athens) and Israel. China developed similar rules of conduct, as did Egypt. The first law system which has a direct influence on the American legal system was the codification of all classic law ordered by the Roman Emperor Justinian in 528 and completed by 534, becoming the law of the Roman empire. This is known as the Justinian Code, upon which most of the legal systems of most European nations are based to this day. The principal source of American law is the common law, which had its roots about the same time as Justinian, among Angles, Britons and later Saxons in Britain. William the Conqueror arrived in 1066 and combined the best of this Anglo-Saxon law with Norman law, which resulted in the English common law, much of which was by custom and precedent rather than by written code. The American colonies followed the English Common Law with minor variations, and the four-volume Commentaries on the Laws of England by Sir William Blackstone (completed in 1769) was the legal "bible" for all American frontier lawyers and influenced the development of state codes of law. To a great extent common law has been replaced by written statutes, and a gigantic body of such statutes have been enacted by federal and state legislatures supposedly in response to the greater complexity of modern life.2) n. a statute, ordinance or regulation enacted by the legislative branch of a government and signed into law, or in some nations created by decree without any democratic process. This is distinguished from "natural law," which is not based on statute, but on alleged common understanding of what is right and proper (often based on moral and religious precepts as well as common understanding of fairness and justice). 3) n. a generic term for any body of regulations for conduct, including specialized rules (military law), moral conduct under various religions and for organizations, usually called "bylaws."
He did not have sex with that woman!
That's pretty much my understanding too, Broome. My curiosity is if, as the article says, LE went there SEVERAL times before the bust then what were they doing when they were there? And, if they would let the provider touch them but not orgasm, weren't the providers thinking there was something strange about it? But to my original question, I just don't understand why these writers who call themselves journalists don't attempt to interview those arrested. I have yet to read an article or column where a provider was interviewed to get the other side of the story. And, if by some unusual chance the writers are attempting to get an interview but are denied, why aren't they noting in the article or column that the provider(s) declined to comment? As long as the various writers around the country write just what LE wants them to write, it will always be a lopsided story that is not necessarily filled with facts.
[QUOTE=Broome333]I'm by no means a lawyer, but my impression is it depends on the rules of the specific jurisdiction what they are and are not allowed to do. I remember reading of one case where the accused got off because the officer went to far with the transaction. Specifically he was allowed to have sex to a certain point to prove guilt beyond any doubt but was not allowed to orgasm (but did). Other jurisdictions don't allow the officer to have any contact making it very hard for them to be convincing as a UC. Most fall somewhere between the two. Of course we all know that LE doesn't always follow their own rules, much less the law they claim to uphold, so I would not be suprised if he did bust her after he got a piece or two.[/QUOTE]